Which Of The Following Is NOT A Function Of Skeletal Muscle?

Week Four Quiz
Chapter 9 Muscular System: Histology and Physiology________________________________________

1. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?
a. body movement

b. maintenance of posture

c. respiration

d. constriction of organs

e. production of heat
2. Which of the following is true?
a. Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction.

b. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs.

c. Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei.

d. Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical.

e. There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart.
3. Which type of muscle tissue has cells that branch?
a. skeletal muscle

b. smooth muscle

c. cardiac muscle

d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle

e. both cardiac and smooth muscle
4. Hypertrophy of skeletal muscles from weight lifting is caused by an increase in the
a. number of muscle fibers.

b. size of muscle fibers.

c. number of striations.

d. number of nuclei within the muscle fibers.

e. number of muscle cells.
5. Actin myofilaments
a. resemble bundles of minute golf clubs.

b. contain both myosin and tropomyosin.

c. are held in place by the M line.

d. contain strands of fibrous actin.

e. are the thickest proteins in muscle.
6. When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal,
a. calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated ion channels.

b. acetylcholine moves into the presynaptic terminal.

c. a local potential is generated in the presynaptic terminal.

d. ligand-gated ion channels in the presynaptic terminal are opened.

e. nothing else happens.
7. In excitation-contraction coupling,
a. calcium ions must bind with myosin to expose active sites on actin.

b. myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin.

c. cross-bridges form between myosin heads and calcium ions.

d. movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex causes actin myofilaments to slide.

e. ATP binds to actin myofilaments.
8. Which of the following helps explain the increased tension seen in multiple wave summation?
a. increased motor unit recruitment

b. increased concentration of calcium ions around the myofibrils

c. exposure of more active sites on myosin myofilaments

d. the breakdown of elastic elements in the cell

e. decreased stimulus frequency
9. An isotonic contraction is described as
a. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.

b. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.

c. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction.

d. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.

e. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
10. Which type of respiration occurs in the mitochondria?
a. anaerobic respiration

b. aerobic respiration

c. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
Chapter 10 Muscular System: Gross Anatomy________________________________________

1. The sternocleidomastoid muscle extends from the mastoid process of the temporal bone to the sternum and medial clavicle. When both sternocleidomastoid muscles contract, the head is flexed. The end of the muscle that connects to the sternum is the
a. origin.

b. belly.

c. body.

d. insertion.

e. fixator.

2. Which of the following represents a class I lever system?
a. crossing your legs

b. hyperextension of the head

c. standing on your tiptoes

d. flexion of the elbow to elevate the hand

e. lifting weight with your arm

3. In order to stabilize the hyoid so that the larynx can be elevated in swallowing, the _____ muscle group is used.
a. Pterygoid

b. Infrahyoid

c. Auricularis

d. Suprahyoid

e. Hyoglossus

4. If abdominal muscles are contracted while the vertebral column is fixed this will aid in
a. vomiting.

b. childbirth.

c. urination.

d. defecation.

e. All of these choices are correct.

5. Which muscle will depress the scapula or elevate the ribs?
a. levator scapulae

b. serratus anterior

c. pectoralis minor

d. subclavius

e. rhomboideus major
6. Which of the following muscles extends the forearm and has its insertion on the ulna?
a. Deltoid

b. biceps brachii

c. triceps brachii

d. Brachialis

e. Coracobrachialis

7. The gluteus maximus
a. does most of the work in “sit-ups.”

b. accounts for a sprinter’s stance.

c. allows one to sit cross-legged.

d. is used in the knee-jerk reflex.

e. is a common site for injections.
8. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. orbicularis oculi

b. temporalis

c. Trapezius

d. Sternocleidomastoid

e. masseter
9. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. linea alba

b. serratus anterior

c. rectus abdominis

d. external oblique

e. internal oblique
10. What does “A” represent?
a. Coracobrachialis

b. Deltoid

c. pectoralis major

d. biceps brachii

e. serratus anterior

 

Belmont Report and Federal regulations for human subject protection?

Which of the following studies is linked most directly to the establishment of the National Research Act in 1974 and ultimately to the Belmont Report and Federal regulations for human subject protection?

A. The Public Health Service Tuskegee Study of Untreated Syphilis in the Negro Male.
B. Stanford Prison Experiment (Zimbardo).
C. Tearoom Trade Study (Humphreys).
D. The Harvard T3 study.

The Belmont principle of beneficence requires that:

A. The study makes a significant contribution to generalizable knowledge.

B. Subjects derive individual benefit from study participation.

C. Risks are managed so that they are no more than minimal.

D. Potential benefits justify the risks of harm.

Humphreys collecting data for the Tearoom Trade study under the pretense that he was a lookout is an example of a violation of the principle of:

A. Justice.

B. Beneficence.

C. Respect for persons.

According to the Belmont Report, the moral requirement that there be fair outcomes in the selection of research subjects, expresses the principle of:

A. Beneficence.

B. Justice.

C. Respect for persons.

Which of the following is an example of how the principle of beneficence is applied to a study involving human subjects?

a. Providing detailed information about the study to potential subjects.

b. Ensuring that risks are reasonable in relationship to anticipated benefits.

c. Ensuring that the selection of subjects is fair.

d. Ensuring that subjects understand that participation is voluntary

According to the federal regulations, which of the following studies meets the definition of research with human subjects?

a. A researcher asks the director of a local free clinic about the number of patients in the last two years with newly diagnosed HIV/AIDS.

b. A researcher conducts a linguistic study of comments posted on a local public blog.

c. A researcher uses the Customs Office’s passenger lists for ships bringing immigrants to the US between1820-1845 to track the numbers of immigrants from certain ethnic groups.

d. A developmental psychologist videotapes interactions between groups of toddlers and their care givers to determine which intervention methods most effectively manage aggression.

According to the federal regulations, which of the following studies meets the definition of research with human subjects?

a. An organization for women academics in engineering asks a federal agency to provide the number of women investigators funded by that agency to include in a report for its membership.

b. An experiment is proposed on the relationship between gender-related stereotypes in math and the subsequent performance by males and females on math tests.

c. A university designs an in-house study to improve the mentoring of women students in its engineering department with the proposed outcome consisting of a report of recommendations for the department.

d. A researcher receives anonymized data for secondary analysis from a survey about gender-related differences in stress levels conducted by a colleague at another university.

According to the federal regulations, which of the following studies meets the definition of research with human subjects?

a. A researcher sets up a meeting with the superintendent of a large and diverse public school system to get data about the ethnic composition of the school system and the number of students receiving free lunches.

b. Undergraduate students in a field methods class are assigned a research question and asked to interview another classmate, to be followed by a class discussion on interview techniques.

c. A researcher conducts a comparison of the comments made in a publicly available blog and the blogger’s comments on a similar topic in a weekly magazine.

d. A cognitive psychologist enrolls undergraduate students for a computer-based study about the effect of mood on problem solving behaviors.

According to the federal regulations, which of the following studies meets the definition of research with human subjects?

a. A feasibility study for implementing a year-round school program, focusing on economic issues such a facilities utilization and transportation costs.

b. The collection of data, by a playground designer hired by the superintendent of schools, about the physical dimensions of school playgrounds, presence of fencing, and the kinds of equipment currently provided.

c. A study of twenty 4th grade classrooms in which researchers ask the schools to systematically vary the time of day reading is taught, and collect weekly assessments of reading comprehension for each child over a three-month period.

d. An analysis of aggregate data comparing statewide high school graduation rates provided by the State Department of Public Instruction, using county tax information.

According to the federal regulations, human subjects are living human beings about whom an investigator obtains data through interaction or intervention with the individual or:

a. Identifiable public information.

b. De-identified private information.

c. Identifiable private information.

d. Observations of public behavior.

According to the federal regulations, research is eligible for exemption, if

a. All the subjects are adults and the risk is minimal.

b. The investigator is experienced in the field of inquiry.

c. The research falls into one of six categories of research activity described in the regulations.

d. Participation in the research will involve 10 minutes or less of the subjects’ time.

In addition to pregnant women, fetuses, and neonates, another subpart of the DHHS regulations provides additional protections for which of the following vulnerable populations?

a. College students.

b. Adults with decisional impairments.

c. The elderly.

d. Prisoners.

According to federal regulations, the expedited review process may be used when the study procedures pose:

a. A minor increase over minimal risk and the sponsor needs approval before the next IRB meeting.

b. More than minimal risk, but the study replicates previously approved research.

c. Any level of risk, but all the subjects are adults.

d. No more than minimal risk and the research activities fall within regulatory categories identified as eligible.

Continuing review of an approved and ongoing protocol

a. Is limited to review of unanticipated problems.

b. Must be conducted by a convened IRB.

c. Is not required unless additional risks have been identified.

d. Must occur within 12 months of the approval date.

Which of the following statements about the relationship between an institution and the institution’s IRB(s) is correct?

a. Institutional priorities take precedence over all IRB determinations.

b. Department chairs can overturn an IRB disapproval.

c. Officials of the institution may overrule an IRB approval.

d. Officials of the institution may overturn an IRB disapproval.

An investigator wishes to study generational differences in coping mechanisms among adults who experienced abuse as children. Adequate measures will be instituted to obtain informed consent and ensure that there is no breach of confidentiality. The most likely additional risk is that some subjects may:

a. Experience emotional or psychological distress.

b. Lose their legal status.

c. Lose their employment.

d. Feel that their privacy has been invaded.

If disclosure of a subject’s involvement in a specific research study can be potentially harmful to the subject, and the consent form is the only record linking the subject to the research, which of the following would be most helpful:

a. Have the subject sign the consent form under an assumed name.

b. Obtain a Certificate of Confidentiality.

c. Code the subjects’ responses.

d. Obtain a waiver of documentation of informed consent.

The primary purpose of a Certificate of Confidentiality is to:

a. Prevent subjects from knowing the purpose of a study.

b. Allow law enforcement to investigate abuse cases.

c. Protect researchers from disclosing conflicts of interest.

d. Protect identifiable research information from compelled disclosure.

Risk should be evaluated solely by the magnitude or severity of expected harm, not probability.

True

False

What statement about risks in social and behavioral sciences research is most accurate:

a. If a study offers potential benefits, it is not necessary to minimize risks.

b. Anonymizing data effectively manages the risk of creating emotional distress.

c. There are never any risks.

d. Risks are specific to time, situation, and culture.

A therapist at a free university clinic treats elementary school children with behavior problems who are referred by a social service agency. She is also a doctoral candidate who proposes using data she has and will collect about the children for a case-based research project. Which of the following statements about parental permission is correct?

a. The therapist creates her clients’ records; therefore, she does not need parents’ permission to use the information for research purposes.

b. If it is the best interests of the community that the children participate in the study, parental permission is optional.

c. The superintendent of the school system can give permission for children to be in the study; therefore, the therapist doesn’t have to ask the parents for permission.

d. The parents of the children might feel pressure to give permission to the therapist to use their children’s data so that she will continue to provide services to their children.

A general requirement for informed consent is that no informed consent may include any exculpatory language. Exculpatory language is that which waives or appears to waive any of the subject’s legal rights or releases or appears to release those conducting the research from liability for negligence. Which of the following statements in a consent form is an example of exculpatory language?

a. Your participation in this research is voluntary. If you choose not to participate, or change your mind later, your decision will not affect your relationship with the researcher or your right to other services that you may be eligible for.

b. Taking part in the research is voluntary, but if you choose to take part, you waive the right to legal redress for any research-related injuries.

c. The researcher may stop you from taking part in this research without your consent if you experience side effects that make your emotional condition worse. If you become too emotionally distressed during the research, you may have to drop out.

d. In the event of any distress you may have related to this research, you will be given access to appropriate resources.

A criterion for waiving informed consent is that, when appropriate, subjects are provided additional pertinent information after the study. In which of the following studies would it NOT be appropriate to provide subjects with information about missing elements of consent:

a. A study in which researchers told students that they would be given a quiz after reading some study materials when the researchers did not intend to use a quiz, but were attempting to focus subjects’ attention on the material.

b. A study in which subjects were assigned to study activities based on an undesirable or unflattering physical characteristic as assessed by members of the research team.

c. A study involving decision-making games in which subjects were led to believe that they were interacting with another student in another room, but were actually interacting with a computer programmed to provide consistent responses to all subjects.

d. A study in which subjects were told that they performed in the third quartile on an anagram task when in reality students were randomly assigned scores that were not related to their actual performance.

A waiver of the requirement for documentation of informed consent may be granted when:

a. The subjects are literate in their own language; however, they do not read, write, or speak English

b. Potential subjects might find some of the research questions embarrassing, personal, or intrusive

c. The investigator has no convenient place to store signed consent forms separate from the research data

d. The only record linking the subject and the research is the consent document and the principal risk is a breach of confidentiality.

As part of the consent process, the federal regulations require researchers to:

a. Describe penalties that may be imposed for non-participation.

b. Recommend that potential subjects discuss their decision to participate with family members.

c. Provide a list of the IRB members who reviewed the protocol.

d. Provide potential subjects with information at the appropriate reading comprehension level.

Destroying all identifiers connected to the data.

Data are made anonymous by

-Destroying all identifiers connected to the data.

-Requiring all members of the research team to sign confidentiality agreements.

-Keeping the key linking names to responses in a secure location.

-Reporting data in aggregate form in publications resulting from the research.

In a longitudinal study that will follow children from kindergarten through high school and will collect information about illegal activities, which of the following confidentiality procedures would protect against compelled disclosure of individually identifiable information?

-Using data encryption for stored files.

-Securing a Certificate of Confidentiality.

-Waiving documentation of consent.

-Using pseudonyms in research reports.

When a focus group deals with a potentially sensitive topic, which of the following statements about providing confidentiality to focus group participants is correct?

-If group members know each other confidentiality is not an issue.

-Using pseudonyms in reports removes the concern about any confidences shared in the group.

-The researcher cannot control what participants repeat about others outside the group.

-If group participants sign confidentiality agreements, the researcher can guarantee confidentiality.

A researcher leaves a research file in her car while she attends a concert and her car is stolen. The file contains charts of aggregated numerical data from a research study with human subjects, but no other documents. The consent form said that no identifying information would be retained, and the researcher adhered to that component. Which of the following statements best characterizes what occurred?

There was neither a violation of privacy nor a breach of confidentiality

-The subjects’ privacy has been violated.

-Confidentiality of the data has been breached

-There was both a violation of privacy and a breach of confidentiality.

Which of the following constitutes both a breach of a confidentiality (the research data have been disclosed, counter to the agreement between researcher and subjects) and a violation of subjects’ privacy (the right of the individuals to be protected against intrusion into their personal lives or affairs)?

-A researcher asks cocaine users to provide names and contact information of other cocaine users who might qualify for a study.

-A faculty member makes identifiable data about sexual behavior available to graduate students, although the subjects were assured that the data would be de-identified.

-A researcher, who is a guest, audio-records conversations at a series of private dinner parties to assess gender roles, without informing participants.

-In order to eliminate the effect of observation on behavior, a researcher attends a support group and records interactions without informing the attendees.

An investigator is studying women recently admitted to a state prison. All potential subjects must have children under the age of five. Research subjects will be given a basket of toys to use at their children’s first visit that the children can then take home. In assessing this proposal, the IRB needs to determine that the toys are:

-Educational.

-Not an excessive incentive.

-Of high quality.

-Age appropriate.

An investigator is examining the quality of life for prisoners who are HIV positive using surveys followed by interview. The IRB must ensure that:

The survey instrument is standardized.

Confidentiality of the prisoners’ health status is maintained.

All prisoners receive HIV testing.

A medical doctor serves as co-investigator.

Which of the following statements about prison research is true?

Participation in research can be considered during parole hearings.

Researchers may study the effects of privilege upgrades awarded by the prison.

It is permissible for risks to be higher than those that would be accepted by non-prisoners.

The regulations prohibit compensating prisoners.

A graduate student wants to examine the effect of print media versus televised media on individuals’ position on several social issues. The superintendent of a local work release facility, a family friend, will allow the graduate student access to the prison population to help her quickly accrue subjects. The student’s IRB should:

Approve this project but submit it for federal review.

Approve this project since the risk appears to be no more than minimal.

Not approve this project because the prisoners are merely a population of convenience for the student.

Approve this project since the superintendent is the ultimate authority on what happens in his facility.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the requirement for the documentation of minors’ assent to participate in research?

Parents must approve written documentation.

To protect minors documentation is always required.

Documentation is required unless waived by an IRB.

Federal regulations do not require the documentation of minors’ assent.

According to Subpart D, research with children may be eligible for exemption when:

The research involves the use of educational tests

The children will be interviewed by the researcher.

The research with children will involve participant observation with researcher interaction.

The children will be asked to complete a survey

A researcher asks an IRB to waive the requirement for parental permission for a study conducted in schools because the nature of the research requires participation of all the children present in classrooms on the day the research will take place. Assuming that the basic research design could be approved by the IRB and the school, which of the following requirements must be met before an IRB could waive parental permission?

Parents must be notified that the study is taking place.

The students must be offered an optional classroom activity.

An independent consultant must approve the waiver.

The research must pose no more than minimal risk.

A study that involves interviews of adults is eligible for expedited review. The researcher wants to add an adolescent population (aged 12 to 17) to the study and has designed a parental permission and assent process. No additional changes are planned. Which of the following statements about review of the revised protocol is accurate?

The research would only be eligible for expedited review if the adolescents are capable of understanding the same consent forms used for the adult population.

The research would only be eligible for expedited review if the adolescents have been declared to be emancipated minors.

Unless the nature of the questions would raise the level of risk to more than minimal for adolescents, the research would still qualify for expedited review.

The new research would need full review by a convened IRB because children are a protected population.

Parental notification, in lieu of active parental permission, is allowed when:

The researcher anticipates a low response rate.

An IRB has approved a waiver of the requirement for parental permission.

The researcher has conducted a similar study at another institution.

The superintendent of schools and the principals have approved the study.

According to Subpart D, which of the following research activities with children would qualify for an exemption?

Survey procedures

Observation of public behavior when the researcher participates in the activities being observed.

Interviews

Research about educational testing

The purpose of the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) is to:

Ensure that surveys do not ask school children to provide sensitive information about their parents.

Provide parents certain rights over their children’s educational records.

Give school principals the right to discuss students’ behavioral problems with their parents.

Allow school counselors to access students’ grades.

Which federal regulation or law governs how researchers can obtain data about subjects’ disciplinary status in school from academic records?

The No Child Left Behind Act.

Subpart D of 45 CFR 46.

The Protection of Pupil Rights Amendment.

The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act.

Which of the following is the LEAST important activity when protecting human subjects in international research?

Determining if the research might present unique risks to subjects given local socio-economic conditions.

Considering local customs, norms, and laws.

Assessing transportation conditions

Consulting with members of the community from which subjects will be recruited.

The age of majority in international research is determined by the

Legal drinking age where the research will take place.

Laws in the state where the researchers’ institution resides.

Laws, customs, and norms in the area in which the research will be conducted.

The research sponsor.

Which of the following activities constitutes engagement in research?

Providing potential subjects with written information about a study.

Obtaining informed consent and conducting research interviews.

Informing prospective subjects about the availability of research.

Obtaining subjects’ permission for researchers to contact them.

Researchers endeavoring to conduct an on-line study should consider that there are some potential risks of harm to subjects unique to Internet-based research. One of these risks is:

People assume pseudonymous on-line identities, such as an avatar in an MMORPG.

Online studies do not require the documentation of informed consent.

Recruiting, consenting and debriefing subjects takes place on-line, and may require little to no interaction with the subjects.

Individuals may post private identifiable information about themselves on-line without intending it to be public and available to researchers.

Which of the following on-line research strategies raises the most concerns regarding the ethical principle of respecting the autonomy of research subjects and the corresponding federal regulations requiring informed consent?

A linguist copies portions of postings on a political blog to document the use of expletives, abbreviations, and the use of irony in the postings.

A researcher posts a notice on an open on-line support group for interracial adoptees asking anyone who would be interested in being interviewed for her study to contact her.

A researcher observes the communications in an open support group without announcing her presence. She is interested in observing how long members participate and how the membership shifts over time.

A researcher proposes to join a moderated support group for cancer survivors posing as a survivor. She plans to insert comments to see how the members respond.

Consent to participate in research is an ongoing process. Which of the following strategies would help ensure that participation in a survey about a sensitive personal topic remains voluntary throughout a study?

Designing the survey so that subjects are not forced to answer one question before going to the next.

Giving examples in the consent process of the kinds of questions that will be asked.

Including the institution’s privacy policy on the survey site.

Providing a thorough debriefing at the end of the study.

To minimize potential risks of harm, a researcher conducting an on-line survey can:

Specify that all respondents must be legal adults.

Suggest that subjects print a copy of the informed consent form for their records.

Comply with the survey software’s Terms of Service agreement.

Design the survey so that no direct or indirect identifiers are collected.

Which of the following examples of using the Internet to conduct research meets the federal definition of research with human subjects?

Downloading a publically available dataset that includes high school students’ academic achievement rates. The data are in aggregate and were derived from multiple school districts from different states.

Gathering data to supplement an oral history project about a local civil rights activist. The activist passed away while the researcher was in the process of conducting in-person interviews with the individual’s social network.

Conducting an on-line focus group with cancer survivors to determine familial support systems. The researcher also invites subjects’ significant others to be a part of the focus group.

Analyzing a website visitor report from several pro-anorexia blogs to determine the popularity of each blog. Access to the blogs is not restricted.

A covered entity may use or disclose PHI without an authorization, or documentation of a waiver or an alteration of authorization, for all of the following EXCEPT:

Use of decedents’ information, with certain representations by the researcher.

Data that does not cross state lines when disclosed by the covered entity.

Activities preparatory to research, with certain representations by the researcher.

Limited data set with an approved data use agreement.

Under HIPAA, a “disclosure accounting” is required:

for all human subjects research that uses PHI without an authorization from the data subject, except for limited data sets.

for all research where the data crosses state lines, otherwise state law applies.

for all human subjects research that uses PHI.

solely at the principle investigator’s discretion.

HIPAA protects a category of information known as protected health information (PHI). PHI includes:

identifiable health information that is created or held by covered entities, provided the data subject is a US citizen.

identifiable health information that is created or held by covered entities.

any identifiable health information.

Identifiable health information that is created or held by covered entities that operate across state lines.

When required, the information provided to the data subject in a HIPAA disclosure accounting …

must be more detailed for disclosures that involve fewer than 50 subject records.

is always the same, regardless of the number of records involved.

is limited to the information elements the data subject specifically requests.

is at the discretion of the organization, given its accounting policies.

HIPAA includes in its definition of “research,” activities related to …

anything a researcher does in a federally-supported laboratory.

development of generalizable knowledge.

quality assessment and improvement.

population health.

Vulnerable persons are those who are less able to protect themselves than other persons in a given situation. The Common Rule (45 CFR 46) has specific requirements for the following vulnerable populations, except:

Pregnant Women

Prisoners

Children

Workers

When workers are asked to participate in a research study, vulnerabilities related to the subject’s employment may include:

Unions may encourage employees to participate with the expectation that “entitlements” may follow from study results.

The research study’s finding could affect an employee’s pay, benefits or promotion potential.

The employer may encourage or deny participation of workers.

Employees may experience pressure from management to participate in the study because the employer perceives the study to be advantageous to the organization.

All of the above

Researcher access to confidential records adds to the vulnerability of workers who participate in workplace studies. Inappropriate release of identifiable private information could adversely affect a worker’s retention of a job, insurance or other employment related benefits. To avoid or minimize these risks, the study design must include adequate safeguards to protect the confidentiality of the information collected. A plan for the proper management of study data and records should clearly define:

Who will have access to the data.

If personal identifiers will be retained and used in the data analysis.

How the data will be collected and secured.

If the study results, if any, will be included in the employee’s personnel records.

All of the above

When a research project includes the collection of biological samples, all planned future uses of the samples, identifiers, and the data obtained from the samples, must be fully explained to the research subject.

True

False

The 1998 FDA regulations for requiring disclosure of significant financial interest reflect which threshold:

Any equity interest in a publicly held company that exceeds $5,000

Any equity interest in a publicly held company that exceeds $30,000

Any equity interest in a publicly held company that exceeds $50,000

Any equity interest in a publicly held company that exceeds $15,000

A situation in which financial or other personal considerations have the potential to compromise or bias professional judgment and objectivity is an example of:

Conflict of Interest

Fraud

Research Misconduct

Malfeasance

According to the DHHS 2011 updated of the PHS federal regulations, the threshold amount for reporting a significant financial interest (investigator and his/her spouse and dependents) is:

Greater than $5,000 of ownership in any single public entity/company.

$25,000 and 5% of ownership in any single entity/company.

Greater than $2,000 or 2% of ownership in any single entity/company.

Greater than $10,000 or 5% of ownership in any single entity/company.

The most important ethical concerns related to conflicts of interest in research are:

Maintaining a supply of volunteers for research studies and their active involvement in research

Ensuring the objectivity of research and the protection of human subjects

Protecting proprietary information and fidelity to contracts with sponsors

Establishing open dialog with sponsors and security of study records

A conflict of interest implies:

The elimination of bias.

The actual involvement of bias.

An awareness of bias.

The potential for bias.

Kant and Sartre both ground their ethical stances in human freedom

I.  Short essay questions, to be answered in about a page for each question (worth 24 points each – 72 points total)

 

1. Aristotle and the Stoics have differing positions on the necessity of external goods for human happiness.  Briefly explain Aristotle’s theory of eudaimonia or happiness and the role external goods play in it.  Next, make sense of the Stoic position on happiness and the external goods.  Which do you think has a better understanding of happiness?  Why?

 

2. Kant and Sartre both ground their ethical stances in human freedom.  First, how does Kant think of autonomy and what does it entail?  If Kant’s conception of autonomy is correct, what does this mean for responsibility?  How does autonomy relate to Kant’s categorical imperative?  Next, how does Sartre view human freedom and from where does it arise?  Why is Sartre’s conception of freedom so central to an existentialist ethics?  What does Sartre mean when he says that human beings are condemned to be free?  If Sartre’s conception of free will is correct, what becomes of responsibility?  How does Sartre’s notion of freedom relate to the universalizability of choice?  With which of these two thinkers do you find yourself agreeing with regard to freedom?  Why?

 

3.  Both Socrates and Mill take up the conception of justice in relation to ethics.  First, in what sense can it be said that an inchoate social contract theory is found in Plato’s Crito?  What does this mean?  Why does Socrates argue that he has an agreement with Athens and what effect does this agreement have?  Next, what does Mill claim regarding justice and social utility?  From a utilitarian perspective, why must one be just?  Which of these two positions do you find more compelling and why?

 

*Read the books in the links and the uploaded

Aristotle text

http://classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/nicomachaen.1.i.html

 

Plato

Communication Studies Of Language Acquistion

The Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis in its strongest form is not supported, but the fact remains that our first language or languages exert a powerful influence on how we think about the world and how we communicate with others about our thoughts. Considering what you have learned about language acquisition and about communication in at least one other area of communication studies (e.g., performance, communication and technology, interpersonal, group communication, organizational communication, rhetoric), write an essay in response to the following question:

 

How does the acquisition of a first language or languages facilitate or limit our perception of and communication with others?

 

Essays should be 600-1200 words, typed, double-spaced, 12 pt Times New Roman or Cambria. Essays are due by 7 pm, Monday, April 13, 2015. If you cite Fromkin, et al., please cite with the page number only. All other courses must be cited in APA and a references list must be included. Reference lists are not included in the word count.

 

Please make it in APA  and the relevant content is in chapter 7

.Transvaginal ultrasound of a 30-year-old female who is not pregnant

IF YOU DON’T KNOW ANYTHING ABOUT CPT CODING THEN THIS ISN’T THE ASSIGNMENT FOR YOU I NEED SOMEONE THAT KNOWS ABOUT CPT CODING AND HAS A CODING MANUAL NOT FROM 15/16 YEAR BECAUSE THE CODES MIGHT BE DIFFERENT. I DO HAVE THE ANSWER CHOICES BUT I FELT LIKE IF I POSTED THEM ALONG WITH QUESTIONS IT WOULD OF THREW PEOPLE OFF.

 

 

 

1.SPECT imaging of liver to assess vascular flow. Report code

 

2.Transvaginal ultrasound of a 30-year-old female who is not pregnant. Report code(s)

 

3.Ms. Gomez presents to the emergency department (ED) of her local hospital, complaining of body aches, fever, and headache. The ED physician performs a spinal puncture to rule out meningitis. Report code

 

4.Application of seven interstitial ribbons in the patient’s abdominal cavity. Report code

 

5.Complete autopsy of a 35-year-old man found dead in his car in the parking lot of a convenience store. Report code

 

6.A 55-year-old female presents to the same-day surgical unit for a sigmoidoscopy. The physician inserts a flexible scope into the patient’s rectum and determines that the rectum is clear of any polyps. The scope is advanced to the sigmoid colon, and a total of three polyps are found. Using the snare technique, the polyps are removed. The flexible scope is withdrawn. Report code

 

7.What does a roentgen identify?

 

8.Pathology examination of tissue removed during a pancreas biopsy. Report code

 

9.Liza Mills was diagnosed at birth with atresia of her tricuspid valve. Liza is now 3 years old, and today she underwent tricuspid valve repair, which involved closure of the atrial septal defect and anastomosis of the vena cava to the pulmonary artery. Report code

 

10.Two simple repairs of the scalp are done; one laceration was 10 cm, and the other laceration was 5 cm. Report code

 

11.A patient sustained a fracture of his left ankle four weeks ago. The short-leg cast that was applied at that time has broken down, and during this encounter, the physician removed the old cast and applied a replacement cast for the remaining three weeks of healing time. Report code(s

 

12.KOH slide examination of hair sample for presence of scabies. Report code

 

13.Patient undergoes a lipid panel. Because of an abnormally high triglyceride level, a repeat triglyceride is done as an individual test. Report code(s)

 

14.Mr. Chung underwent open reduction with internal fixation of shaft fracture of the right tibia on June 20. Late during that same evening, the patient’s wound site became inflamed and showed signs of infection. Upon his return to the operating room, the site was reopened, a severe reaction to the metal was noted, and the metal rod was removed. The patient did not have the internal fixation device replaced, but a cast was applied to the leg. Report code(s)

 

15.Select the modifier for “unrelated procedure

 

16.A child has a small metal toy lodged in her right ear. After multiple unsuccessful attempts are made to remove the object, the patient is taken to the ambulatory unit for removal. After discussion with the patient’s parents, an informed consent is signed. The patient undergoes removal of the object, which is performed in the operating room after administration of general anesthesia. Report code

 

17.Nick Miller had blood testing done to determine peroxidase activity, qualitative, feces. This was of a specimen obtained from a digital rectal exam (DRE). Report code

 

18.Insulin-induced C-peptide suppression panel. Report code(s)

 

19.A 25-year-old patient presents to have a repair of her recurrent ventral hernia. The hernia is located in the lower left abdominal quadrant. The physician repairs the hernia using Prolex mesh. Report code(s)

 

20.A 60-year-old patient was admitted with bullous emphysematous nodules. Patient underwent surgical thoracoscopy surgical with resection-plication of the left lung for lung volume reduction (LVRS). Report code(s)

 

21.Direct laryngoscopy for the removal of a fish bone stuck in the patient’s throat. The physician used an operating microscope during this procedure. Report code(s)

 

22.Adjacent tissue transfer (1 sq cm) of skin defect of the chin, which was the result of an excision of benign skin lesion (1 cm) of the chin (performed during the same operative procedure). Report code(s) _____.

 

23.Chest x-ray, frontal, lateral, and oblique views. Report code(s)

 

24.Culture of nail for presence of fungi. Report code _____

 

25.Blood testing for presence of Chlamydia immunoglobulins. Report code

 

26.A 20-year-old male underwent arthroscopic knee meniscectomy, medial, right, including meniscal shaving. Report code(s)

 

27.Analysis of semen for presence and motility. Report code

 

28.Repair of truncus arteriosus, 5-day-old male infant. Report code

 

29.Max Wilcox underwent a thoracotomy to implant a patient-activated cardiac event recorder. Report code(s)

 

30.Ligation and stripping of bilateral short saphenous veins and ligation of long saphenous veins from the saphenofemoral junction to the knee of the left leg. Report code(s)

 

31.Appendectomy using laparoscope. Report code

 

32.A patient diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy undergoes laparoscopic treatment of this condition that also requires removal of the fallopian tube. Report code

 

33.Complete removal of thyroid gland with radical dissection due to thyroid cancer. Report code

 

34.A patient diagnosed with chronic pericarditis presents for complete removal of the pericardium, which is performed under cardiopulmonary bypass. Report code

 

35.Bilateral screening mammography due to family history of breast cancer. Report code

 

36.Liza Moore had normal antepartum care, vaginal delivery, episiotomy, and normal postpartum care, all provided by Dr. Thomas. Report code(s)

 

37.Bilateral mastectomy for gynecomastia. Report code

 

38.Photocoagulation destruction of corneal lesion, right eye. Report code

 

39.Direct laryngoscopy of a newborn male weighing 3500 grams with tracheoscopy performed to aspirate fluid. Report code

 

40.Repair of acute diaphragmatic hernia in a 25-year-old patient who was injured during a motor vehicle crash (MVC). Report code

 

41.A patient diagnosed with meningioma undergoes craniectomy to remove the tumor. Report code

 

42.Arthrodesis of two interphalangeal joints. Report code(s)

 

43.A patient undergoes platelet apheresis and is discharged after the platelets are retransfused. Report code

 

44.Patient had 16 skin tags removed from the upper chest and neck area. Report code(s)

 

45.Mr. Bonaparte underwent bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy of the lung. Report code(s)

 

46.Bilateral examination of TMJ. Report code

 

47.Left tympanostomy with insertion of a ventilating tube, under local anesthesia. Report code

 

48.Kevin James is admitted to the same-day surgical unit. Kevin was diagnosed with cholelithiasis with cholecystitis and undergoes laparoscopic removal of his gallbladder for these conditions. Report code

 

49.ABO blood typing of whole blood unit that will be transfused. Report code

Which of the following is required for successful collaborative decision making?

Question

Week 3 quiz

Question 1

Which of the following is required for successful collaborative decision making?

Answers:

Taking a stand for one fixed option

Isolating stakeholders from the decision-making process

Considering yourself and the persons involved as one unit

Relying primarily on a logical approach to decision making

Question 2

According to Edward de Bono’s Six Thinking Hats tool, teams wear the _____ hat to discuss the value and benefits of a particular idea or option.

Answers:

red

black

orange

yellow

Question 3

Carla is planning to use brainstorming in her next team meeting to generate new product ideas. In using brainstorming effectively, Carla should avoid:

Answers:

evaluating others’ ideas.

setting a time limit.

building on the ideas of others.

asking hypothetical questions in between.

Question 4

A few key employees of a company met to generate ideas to improve the company’s efficiency. After a brainstorming session, the ideas generated were scribed on some cards and spread out on a large desk. The employees then proceeded to organize related ideas into categories, and discussed the grouping till five manageable groups of ideas were created. Also, each group of ideas was given an appropriate title. Which of the following techniques of synthesizing brainstormed ideas has been applied in this scenario?

Answers:

Affinitizing

Pattern recognition

Broadbanding

Sequential differentiation

Question 5

Charlie, a production head at an automobile company, is reviewing along with his team the efficiency of the current production system. A few employees in his team have ideas about how the production cost can be reduced by modifying the assembly system. Which of the following statements made by Charlie would best act as an idea grower in this scenario?

Answers:

If the system is not broken, we do not have to fix it.

The current production system is good enough.

Though the current system is efficient, is it perfect?

You may want to change the current system, but what about the costs?

Question 6

_____ is best described as a process by which several possibilities are considered and prioritized, resulting in a clear choice of one option over others.

Answers:

Benchmarking

Decision making

Delegating

Pattern recognition

Question 7

Richard, a supplier of synthetic fabrics, is in a meeting with a customer. Richard had expected the customer to quote a good price for his product, but the customer quoted an unprofitable price. In this situation, which of the following statements would be most ineffective in getting Richard a good bargain?

Answers:

Could you explain the reasons for your price quotation?

I am upset about the price quoted for my product.

You are being unfair by quoting such a low price on the product.

I expect a better price for my product because of its superior quality.

Question 8

Which of the following is an ineffective practice during a negotiation process?

Answers:

Bargaining by focusing on positions rather than interests

Starting the negotiation with a relationship-based tone rather than on an adversarial note

Concentrating on problems rather than people when bargaining

Exploring all possibilities for solutions rather than quickly focusing on one fixed solution

Question 9

Which of the following is an ineffective practice during negotiations?

Answers:

Revisiting issues that have already been resolved

Disagreeing to terms that are not acceptable to you

Developing a frame based on both your needs and those of the other party

Using close-out questions to generate constructive discussions

Question 10

Alan and his business partner, Fred, have decided to end their joint venture. However, both parties have issues in dividing the resources of the company. They are prepared to resolve their conflicts through a third-party negotiator, provided the third party allows them to be actively involved in generating the solution. In this scenario, which of the following third-party negotiators will fail to meet Alan’s and Fred’s criterion?

Answers:

A mediator

A conciliator

A consultant

An arbitrator

Question 11

Two research teams at BioSure Pharmaceutical Inc. are in a conflict over the company’s scarce resources. Both teams share the same lab, tools, and sometimes even the personnel. The company’s finances are also proportionately distributed among the two teams. Due to some delay in one of the team’s work, both teams have been called for a mutual negotiation. In order to make the negotiation effective, the research teams should:

Answers:

adopt a clear win-lose attitude.

remain objective and avoid personalizing issues.

get into emotional debates and personal attacks with each other.

criticize the working style and personality traits of each other.

Question 12

Which of the following statements is true about integrative bargaining strategies?

Answers:

Integrative bargaining works only when the relationship between both negotiating parties is expected to be short term.

In integrative bargaining, any one party achieves its primary objectives through skillful negotiation.

Negotiators in integrative bargaining typically take a competitive posture to dividing a fixed amount of resources.

For integrative bargaining to work, it is necessary to have a climate that supports and promotes open communication.

Question 13

Which of the following is an advantage typically associated with the accommodation strategy of conflict management?

Answers:

Both sides win

Energy free for other pursuits

Chance to win everything

Heightened self-assertion and possible self-esteem

Question 14

Ken and Tim realize that in order to resolve their conflict, it is better if they each get some of what they want instead of nothing. Ken and Tim manage their conflict using the _____ strategy.

Answers:

competing

compromising

accommodation

avoidance

Question 15

Integral Inc. coaches its employees to recognize that conflict is normal and not necessarily bad. This helps them to deal effectively with differing viewpoints and approaches, which can lead to innovation. Which organizational technique for preventing conflict is Integral using?

Answers:

Diversity training

Use of the collaborative strategy to deal with conflict

Conflict management and negotiation training

Employees’ involvement in decisions that affect them

Question 16

Using an accommodation strategy to resolve a conflict can:

Answers:

force people to work toward achieving their goals at all costs, even if it means sacrificing the relationships involved.

lead to a “lose-lose” scenario where goals may not be achieved, and the relationship may not progress beyond its current state.

teach people to accept that they cannot get their way at all times.

be harmful in the long term as resentment builds up over unmet needs.

Question 17

The three techniques that are particularly useful for avoiding conflicts through effective communication skills are using “I” language, paying attention to nonverbal cues, and:

Answers:

practicing the art of being silent.

accommodating others’ views.

communicating consequences.

using “you” language subtly.

Question 18

In the compromising strategy to resolve conflicts, a manager will:

agree to give up part of his or her goal and part of the relationship involved to reach an agreement.

work to achieve his or her goals at all costs, even if it means sacrificing the relationship involved.

choose not to deal with the issues or the people involved.

arrive at a solution that brings about an “I win, you lose” situation.

Question 19

Anne is perceived as a manager who alienates and discourages others from working with her. As a result, there is a possibility of potentially large scale conflicts in the future. Which conflict management strategy is being adopted by Anne?

Answers:

Competition

Avoidance

Accommodation

Compromise

Question 20

In the storming stage of team development, the team members:

Answers:

may disband permanently or take a temporary break.

will not know each other and even if they do, there is a feeling of uncertainty and tentativeness.

have a sense of belongingness and a sense of relief that everything will work out.

have feelings such as resistance to the task or approach being taken by the group and anger about roles and responsibilities.

Question 21

A team set up by Zendon Inc. to design a new product in the U.S. office space consists of members from the organization’s marketing, finance, research and development, planning, and operations. The team derives its strength from diversity and ensures that all relevant points of view are considered. Such a team would best be described as a(n):

Answers:

offshore ISD team.

virtual team.

cross-functional team.

process improvement team.

Question 22

_____ takes place when members who are part of a group agree to a more unsafe course of action than any individual would have alone.

Answers:

Groupthink

Social loafing

Group-hate

Risky shift

Question 23

High-performance teams are characterized by:

Answers:

members with only individual accountability.

members with specialty skills rather than people skills.

extensive communication mechanisms.

an optimal team size of 15 to 20.

Question 24

A team member can become distracted by a work or personal problem that prevents him or her from following through on commitments made to the team. This team member is best described as a(n):

Answers:

absentee member.

social loafer.

procrastinator.

arbitrator.

Question 25

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of process improvement teams?

Answers:

They are permanent and are retained even after the process being studied has been changed to the satisfaction of the management.

They operate across time, space, and organizational boundaries using means other than face-to-face meetings.

They consist of groups of employees who are responsible for a complete, self-contained package of responsibilities that relate to a final product.

They focus on specific methods, operations, or procedures and are assembled with the specific goal of enhancing a particular component being studied.

English as ascend language and easy

here are 6 chapters in the end of each chapter there are case studies which .
due in 36 hours. max 40 hours. 6 pages want them excellent no less.
In the end of each case study there are questions.
Please write the questions and answer them.
  •  try to answer each question in one page.
  • and try to use third party if you have enough informations about the third part theory in public relations.
  • English as ascend language and easy .
  • Due as soon as you can hours because I have 18 more Case Study its need to be DONE as soon as possible.
  • Its case study in public relations graduate student.
  • I did attach old answer fix it and make it creative and creative please.
  • make the language easy for me please.

Under Armour Case Analysis

Week 1 Written Assignment – Under Armour Case Analysis (Due Week 2)

Please read the case – Under Armour – Challenging Nike in Sport Apparel (Case 5) and solve the following questions from this strategic scenario:

You have been hired by the board of directors as a consultant to analyze its current strategic position and relationship with the key market players. Your contract stipulates that you must provide appropriate recommendations that pertain to the marketplace growth, operations, and decisive strategy for added value to Under Armour’s product base. Your firm has been empowered to furnish critical information and data to the corporate decision process.

Please see the Course Materials section for more information on completing the case studies.

The following questions need to be addressed as a result of your study:

  1. Use a “Five Force” analysis to determine how strong the competitive forces are confronting Under Armour, Nike, and The adidas Group.
  2. Does Under Armour have any core competencies, resource strengths, or competitive capabilities that qualify as a distinctive competence?
  3. What does a SWOT analysis reveal about the overall attractiveness of Under Armour’s situation?
  4. Which one of the five generic competitive strategies discussed in Chapter 5 most closely approximates the competitive approach that Under Armour is employing?
  5. What is impressive about Under Armour’s financial performance during the 2006-2011 period (as shown in case Exhibit 1)?
  6. What recommendations would you make to Under Armour CEO Kevin Plank?

COM3131 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Week 1 quiz

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true of values?

Answers:

Terminal values are the “hows” of goal setting.

Instrumental values are the “what’s” of goal setting.

Tangible values are the standards of behavior by which we achieve desired ends.

Intangible values can be defined differently for each person.

Question 2

_____ are concepts or beliefs about desirable outcomes that transcend specific situations and guide an individual’s selection or evaluation of behaviors and events.

Answers:

Skills

Traits

Values

Goals

Question 3

Which of the following is an example of an instrumental value?

Answers:

Salvation

Prosperity

Sense of accomplishment

Compassion

Question 4

Which of the following criteria of the SMART system is missing in the statement “I will sell 15 percent more than usual this week”?

Answers:

Measurable

Time bound

Realistic

Specificity

Question 5

Which of the following is concerned with recognizing that an issue involves an ethical question, making an ethical judgment, and actually acting ethically?

Answers:

Ethical empowerment

Ethics test

Ethical audit

Ethical decision making

Question 6

Which of the following ethics test is based on the question: “Am I thinking this action or decision is right just because someone with appropriate authority or knowledge says it is right?”

Answers:

The test of light of day

The test of the purified idea

The test of one’s best self

The test of common sense

Question 7

Sarah, a new team member, wants her co-workers to be able to trust her. In this scenario, which of the following practices would help her?

Answers:

Being consistent and predictable in her work

Making self-flattering statements about her capabilities

Revealing confidential information about others without permission

Participating in gossip about specific individuals

Question 8

In the context of Johari Window, the larger the hidden area, the:

Answers:

greater the trust in your interpersonal relationships.

lesser the chances of your relationships developing beyond the acquaintance level.

lesser the chance that others will be unaware about you.

greater the chances for others to determine strategies for working effectively with you.

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true of trust?

Answers:

Trust is a right; it cannot be earned.

Trust is situation-dependent, and it evolves over time.

Trust is very easy to develop, but it is very difficult to destroy.

Trust is an aspect of relationships that is constant across all relationships.

Question 10

Gerald manages the marketing team in his company. Most of his team members are new to the organization. Which of the following practices would best help Gerald in building trust within his team?

Answers:

Facilitating self-disclosure among his team members

Encouraging his team members to focus on self-protection

Being judgmental when his team members share their ideas

Micromanaging his team members

Question 11

Which of the following is an example of self-description as opposed to self-disclosure?

Answers:

Disclosing your organization’s name at a conference

Sharing your view on the nation’s political system with a colleague

Expressing your spiritual beliefs to a friend

Disclosing the problems you are facing at home to a co-worker

Question 12

The _____ area of the Johari Window denotes information about us that is apparent to others but not to ourselves.

Answers:

blind

unknown

open

hidden

Question 13

Which of the following statements is true of procrastination?

Answers:

It gives ample time to review a piece of work for accuracy.

It reduces stress between an employee and his or her co-workers.

It avoids alienating co-workers.

It is usually associated with avoidance behavior.

Question 14

Which of the following stress management strategies primarily involves engaging our ability to recall a special place or memory and invite the same positive feelings or sensations to return?

Answers:

Progressive muscle relaxation

Visualization

Guided imagery

Mindfulness-based stress reduction

Question 15

Which of the following statements is true of time management?

Answers:

It is helpful only in our professional lives.

It restricts our activities to one arena at the expense of the other.

It has little effect on reducing our stress levels.

It helps focus our energy on well-chosen activities.

Question 16

_____ is a highly structured educational approach that primarily combines meditation and yoga exercises to help people achieve a greater sense of control, make choices with clarity and awareness, and promote healthy living.

Answers:

Stress reduction intervention

Mindfulness-based stress reduction

Cognitive therapy

Somatic training

Question 17

Jason is a successful manager because he has the required zeal, commitment, and ability to remain persistent in the face of adversity.Which fundamental component of emotional intelligence does Jason exhibit?

Answers:

Self-awareness

Motivation

Empathy

Persuasion

Question 18

Which of the following is a key impact of emotional intelligence in leadership?

Answers:

Less impulsiveness

Increased depression

Lack of transformational leadership

Decreased concern for mastering skills

Question 19

Richard runs a supermarket chain. All his stores have been experiencing declining sales for the past one year. Richard blames this depletion in sales on the increasing competition in the market. Which of the following theories best explains Richard’s behavior in this scenario?

Answers:

Attribution theory

Two-factor theory

Equity theory

Expectancy theory

Question 20

Stephen Covey refers to the concept of gaining self-awareness through understanding how others view us and how we are shaped by others’ opinions of us as the _____.

Answers:

glass ceiling

social mirror

learning curve

catch-22 situation

Question 21

Which of the following is NOT an effective way of increasing self-awareness?

Answers:

Keeping your thoughts and feelings to yourself, without sharing it with others

Working in a country other than your home country

Reading books on subjects that are beyond your career field

Accepting what others say about you as partially

Question 22

In the context of self-awareness among managers, which of the following statements is NOT true?

Answers:

Self-awareness leads to accurate judgments and enables managers to make good decisions.

Self-aware managers do not need to make any modifications to their personal behavior.

Self-awareness when low can lead to an unrealistic notion of one’s competencies.

Self-aware managers are not only aware of their strengths but also their weaknesses.

Question 23

_____ is best described as the act of attributing one’s own attitudes, characteristics, or shortcomings to others.

Answers:

Self-description

Projection

Selective perception

Individualization

Question 24

The tendency to adjust our behavior relative to the changing demands of social or environmental situations is known as:

Answers:

social regulation.

self-actualization.

self-monitoring.

social realization.

Question 25

Mark’s boss has shortlisted three employees—Jack, Justin, and Grace—who are eligible for promotion. It is Mark’s duty to promote any two employees from the chosen people. Mark decides not to promote Grace because he believes that women are not achievement-oriented, and they cannot completely focus on their work. Making such generalized assumptions that influence an individual’s perceptions is known as:

Answers:

selective perception.

whistle blowing.

stereotyping.

projection.