Personal Finance Planning

1. Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding “Propensity to Consume”? Select one:

a. Your average propensity to consume is the percentage of each dollar of income, on the average, that is spent for current needs rather than savings.

b. Average propensity to consume is best described as how much of your money you plan to save in your financial plan.

c. A person making $35,000 and spending $30,800 has an average propensity to consume of 88%.

d. Generally, as income rises, the average propensity to consume decreases.

e. Two persons with equal average propensities to consume will not necessarily have equal standards of living because of differences in income.

2. The ratio that is calculated by dividing your total monthly loan payments by your monthly gross income is called the: Select one:

a. Debt Service Ratio

b. Solvency Ratio

c. Liquidity Ratio

d. Income Ratio

3. The term most closely associated with quality of life is: Select one:

a. Standard of Living

b. Money

c. Education

d. Wealth

e. Consumption

4. The following would represent qualitative data obtained by a planner during a data-gathering session: . . . (1) The primary and contingent beneficiaries of the client’s life insurance policies . . . (2) The amount and type of life insurance included in the client’s employee benefits package . . . (3) The age at which the client hopes to retire . . . (4) The client’s established gifting strategy to his grandchildren’s college fund over the next 10 years . . . (5) The fact that the client’s wife is expecting a significant inheritance within 10 years, which they feel will decrease their need to contribute currently to a retirement plan Select one:

a. (1), (3) and (5)

b. (2), (3) and (4)

c. (1), (2) and (4)

d. (3) and (5)

e. (3), (4) and (5)

5. Which of the following economic concepts is/are correctly represented? . . . (1) Income is a prime factor impacting demand within the economy. . . . (2) The Substitution Effect states that as the cost of goods rises, consumers reduce or cease consumption. . . . (3) Price is considered the most important factor affecting demand. . . . (4) Changes in Gross Domestic Product measure economic growth. . . . (5) Our federal deficit is the cumulative result of spending that exceeds revenue. Select one:

a. All of the 5 offered responses are correctly represented.

b. (1), (3) and (4)

c. None of the 5 offered responses are correctly represented.

d. (2) and (4) only

e. (2), (4) and (5)

6. The following would represent quantitative data obtained by a planner during a data-gathering session: . . . (1) The primary and contingent beneficiaries of the client’s life insurance policies . . . (2) The amount and type of life insurance included in the client’s employee benefits package . . . (3) The age at which the client hopes to retire . . . (4) The client’s established gifting strategy to his grandchildren’s college fund over the next 10 years . . . (5) The fact that the client’s wife is expecting a significant inheritance within 10 years, which they feel will decrease their need to contribute currently to a retirement plan Select one:

a. (3), (4) and (5)

b. (2), (3) and (4)

c. (1), (4) and (5)

d. (3) and (5)

e. (1), (2) and (4)

7. The following are methods by which the Fed interacts with our economy: . . . (1) Periodically making adjustments to the CPI . . . (2) Establishing the exchange rate of the US dollar, relative to specific foreign currencies . . . (3) Initiating purchases and sales of US Government securities . . . (4) Setting the rates that banks are allowed to charge their customers . . . (5) Raising or lowering of discount rate charged to member banks Select one:

a. (1), (3) and (4)

b. (1), (4) and (5)

c. Options 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are all true statements.

d. (3) and (5) only e. (4) and (5) only

8. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding the preparation of a personal balance sheet? . . . (1) Home appliances purchased on credit should be included on the liability side of the balance sheet. . . . (2) All assets should be reflected on the balance sheet at their original cost. . . . (3) Your leased auto would be shown as an asset during the entire term of the lease. . . . (4) Money contributions to one’s 401(k) are shown as a liability. . . . (5) A set of tires charged to your Visa account would not be shown as a liability on your balance sheet until your Visa bill has been received. Select one: a. (4) and (5)

b. (2) only

c. None of the 5 offered responses are true.

d. (1), (3) and (5) e. (1), (2) and (3)

9. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE concerning use of ratios in evaluating financial solvency? . . . (1) A cash surplus on the Income/Expense Statement would typically produce a positive savings ratio. . . . (2) A family with an increasing debt service ratio would automatically also reflect a negative savings ratio. . . . (3) The liquidity ratio is an indicator of a family’s ability to pay current debts if there is an interruption in income. . . . (4) One would be improving one’s financial situation when the savings ratio is increasing and the debt service ratio is decreasing. . . . (5) The savings ratio is useful in the evaluation of the balance sheet. Select one:

a. (1), (2) and (3)

b. (2) only

c. (2) and (3) only

d. (1), (3) and (4)

e. (2), (4) and (5)

10. Malcolm buys a valuable painting for $20,000. He purchases it using $15,000 from his savings account and a $5,000 loan. How does the transaction affect Malcolm’s current financial statement? (You may disregard any potential future impact of depreciation/appreciation.) . . . (1) His assets decrease, and his liabilities increase . . . (2) Both his assets and liabilities increase . . . (3) His net worth increases. . . . (4) His net worth decreases . . . (5) His net worth stays the same. Select one:

a. (1) and (4)

b. (1) and (5)

c. (2) and (5)

d. (1) and (3)

e. (2) and (4)

11. Kip has purchased a gold coin set for $30,000. He purchases it using $20,000 from his savings account and a $10,000 loan. How does the transaction affect Kip’s current financial statement? (You may disregard any potential future impact of depreciation/appreciation of the purchased asset.) . . . (1) Both his assets and liabilities increase . . . (2) His assets decrease, and his liabilities increase . . . (3) His net worth stays the same. . . . (4) His net worth increases. . . . (5) His net worth decreases. Select one: a. (1) and (3) b. (1) and (4) c. (2) and (4) d. (2) and (5) e. (2) and (3)

12. Which of the following would not be an appropriate entry in the “Assets” Section of your financial statement? Select one:

a. Your primary residence which has $48,000 mortgage against it

b. Your leased Toyota Four-Runner

c. Your 5 year old bass boat which was a gift from your father-in-law

d. A duplex located in another state from which you derive rental income

e. 50 shares of stock of a local business which is not traded on any of the national exchanges.

13. The financial ratio that is calculated by dividing your total monthly loan payments by your monthly gross income is called the: Select one:

a. Debt Service Ratio

b. Solvency Ratio

c. Income Ratio

d. Liquidity Ratio

[This case scenario applies to the next three questions.] The Clark family disclosed the following information on their data gathering form: (You may assume that there are no other assets or liabilities to be considered.) Income Gross Monthly Income . $ 4,000 Monthly Take Home Pay . $ 3,000 Assets Checking Account . $ 1,000 Passbook Savings . $ 500 Money Market . $ 1,000 Retirement Account (Vested Balance) $ 20,000 . (Market Value) $ 30,000 Residence (Market Value) $100,000 . (Basis) $ 80,000 Personal Property . $ 10,000 Boat . $ 10,000 Liabilities Current Liabilities: . . . . . . Private School Tuition Balance . $ 150 . . . . Homeowner’s Insurance Premium . $ 314 . . . . Major Credit Card @ $50/month $ 400 . . . . Auto Repair Bill . $ 150 . . . . Boat Loan @ $110/month $ 1,000 Long Term Liabilities: . . . . . . Primary Residence Mortgage @ $432/month $ 75,000

14.  What is the amount of the Clark’s net worth? Select one:

a. $75,486

b. $65,486

c. $63,986

d. $175,486

15. Using the information from the Clark’s data gathering form in the previous question, the Clark’s liquidity ratio shows that they could maintain their current debt structure in the event of an emergency for about _____ months. Select one:

a. 18

b. less than 5

c. 23

d. 8

16. (Continuing to use the information from the Clark’s data gathering form in the previous question …) The Clarks want to purchase an auto. They are considering refinancing their home. They plan to borrow $90,000, with which they will liquidate all existing liabilities reflected in the case study (both current and long term); and they will purchase an $11,000 auto. They have negotiated a 7% loan for 30 years with $1,986 in closing costs. Which of the following statement are true regarding the results of the financial repositioning for the Clarks? . . . (1) Based on the standard debt-service ratio qualification standards, the Clark’s income would qualify them for this loan. . . . (2) The anticipated loan to value ratio would require the payment of private mortgage insurance. . . . (3) Following the completion of these transactions, the Clark’s net worth would decrease (not considering depreciation). . . . (4) Following these transactions, the Clark’s solvency ratio would be improved. Select one:

a. (1), (2) and (3)

b. (2), (3) and (4)

c. (1) and (2)

d. All of the above

e. (1), (2) and (4)

17.The promised rate of interest paid on a savings account or charged on a loan is the: Select one:

a. Effective interest

b. Nominal interest

c. Discounted interest

d. Direct interest

18. The following are true statements concerning the process of financial planning for the CFP® practitioner: . . . (1) The Certified Financial Planning Practitioner has social, legal and ethical responsibilities to his/her planning clients. . . . (2) The Certified Financial Planning Practitioner is considered to have a fiduciary relationship with his/her clients. . . . (3) Only planners practicing the comprehensive view of planning meet the definition of “financial planner”. . . . (4) The planning process is finite, therefore a specific beginning point (the engagement) and an end (the delivery of the plan document) must be established in every planning relationship. . . . (5) The planner, in some cases, may be able to save the client money by performing comprehensive tasks that had previously been assigned to other professionals, such as the client’s banker, accountant and attorney. Select one:

a. All of the above

b. (1) and (2) only

c. (1), (3) and (5)

d. (1) and (3) only

e. (1), (2) and (4)

19. Janet is a new client. She is considering buying a house and provided the following information during your data gathering process: . . . Annual gross income: $100,000 . . . Annual Principal and Interest Payments on the anticipated mortgage: $14,000 . . . Annual anticipated Premiums for Homeowners and Flood Insurance: $1,000 . . . Annual Property taxes: $5,000 . . . Annual Living Expenses: $40,000 . . . Annual Credit Card Payments on existing debt: $12,000 . . . Annual Contribution to Retirement Account: $5,000 . . . Annual Student Loan Payments for next 10 years: $5,000 . . . Annual Car Payments for next 2 years: $6,000 Using the standard housing qualification ratios which we have discussed, which of the following comments would you say are true regarding Janet’s ability to qualify financially for this purchase? Select one:

a. Both the first and second ratios are outside the normal/acceptable range.

b. The second ratio is within normal/acceptable range, but the first ratio is not.

c. Both the first and second ratios are within the normal/acceptable range.

d. The first ratio is within normal/acceptable range, but the second ratio is not.

20. Kathy’s gross annual income is $58,900 and her monthly recurring debts are $325. She can put a down payment of no more than $35,000, but does not want to pay Private Mortgage Insurance. Based on the standard home affordability ratios, approximately what is the maximum price home that Kathy should be looking at? (Assume that the taxes and insurance will be $1800 annually and that she will be able to obtain a 30 year loan with a 10% interest rate) Select one:

a. $225,000

b. $139,500

c. $156,000

d. $174,000

21. In evaluating financial statements, which of the following statements is/are correct? . . . (1) A balance sheet shows financial condition over a period of time. . . . (2) A budget is a detailed statement of what income and expenses have occurred over a particular past period. . . . (3) A realized net cash flow deficit on the budget statement is reflected on the balance sheet as an increase in net worth. . . . (4) The net worth statement is most similar to the balance sheet. . . . (5) The income and expense statement provides a measure of financial performance tied to a specific date (e.g., 12/31/2012) Select one:

a. (1), (4) and (5)

b. (2), (3) and (5)

c. (4) only

d. (3) only

e. All 5 statements are correct.

22. Which of the following statements are FALSE concerning educational funding? . . . . (1) Lifelong Learning Credit, American Opportunity Credit, distributions from “QTP/529 Plans” and distributions from ESAs may all be taken in the same tax year, provided they do not overlap qualifying expenses. . . . . (2) Contributions to a “QTP/529 Plan” are identified by donor, rather than by beneficiary. . . . . (3) “QTP/529 Plan” account balances are limited by statutory maximum, which includes both principal and accrued interest. . . . . (4) “Plus” Loans are made to Undergraduate students only. . . . . (5) The Uniform Gift/Transfers to Minors Act (UTMA and UGMA) allows the minor recipient/student to act as the custodian/trustee for his/her own account. Select one:

a. (2), (4) and (5)

b. (2), (3) and (5)

c. (1), (3) and (4)

d. All of the above statements are false.

e. (1) and (2)

23. Which of the following strategies for education accumulation do NOT offer tax deferred accumulation? . . . . (1) State sponsored “529” Savings Plans . . . . (2) Educational Trust with Crummey powers . . . . (3) EE Savings Bonds . . . . (4) Education IRAs . . . . (5) Passbook savings account established under the Uniform Transfer to Minors Act Select one:

a. (2), (4) and (5)

b. All of the strategies offer tax deferred accumulation

c. (2) and (5)

d. (2), (3) and (5)

e. (1) and (2)

24. Which of the following represent(s) true statements concerning educational funding? . . . . (1) Assets deposited to a 2503(b) Trust may remain within the trust beyond the beneficiary’s age of majority. . . . . (2) Contributions to a “QTP/529 Plan” are identified by beneficiary, rather than donor. . . . . (3) “QTP/529 Plan” account balances are limited by statutory maximum, which includes both principal and accrued interest. . . . . (4) Educational IRAs no longer impose a phase-out for donor eligibility, based on income. . . . . (5) Lifelong Learning Credit, American Opportunity Credit, distributions from “QTP/529 Plans”, and distributions from ESAs may all be taken in the same tax year, provided that they do not overlap qualifying expenses. Select one:

a. (1) and (2)

b. (2) and (5)

c. (2), (4) and (5)

d. (1), (3) and (4)

e. (2), (3) and (5)

25. Which of the following is/are TRUE statement(s) regarding methodologies of college funding? . . . . (1) The interest expense deduction on education loans is subject to phase-out based on modified adjusted gross income. . . . . (2) The American Opportunity Credit is no longer limited to the first two years of post-secondary education, but is contains other limitations such as eligible expenses, and income. . . . . (3) Scholarship monies for room and board are generally taxable to the recipient. . . . . (4) College cost inflation has historically outpaced the consumer price index. . . . . (5) Federal Perkins loans are needs-based. Select one:

a. (1), (2), (4) and (5)

b. (1), (4) and (5)

c. (1), (3) and (5)

d. (2), (3) and (4)

e. All of the responses are true.

26. According to the CFP® Code of Ethics, everything must be disclosed in writing except: Select one:

a. Full responsibilities and obligations of each party

b. Date and duration of plan

c. Names of each party involved

d. Terms of terminating the agreement

27. Bruce Morton’s firm, Morton Asset Management, is registered with the SEC as an investment adviser. His associate, Bill Collins, sells only life insurance. Which of the following is permissible usage? Select one:

a. Bruce Morton, RIA

b. None of the above

c. Both B and C

d. Bruce Morton, Registered Investment Adviser e. Bill Collins, Investment Counselor

28. The following would generally be required to “register” as investment advisor(s), based on the Investment Advisors Act of 1940: . . . (1) An insurance agent who performs limited planning activities in conjunction with the sale of life insurance and who is compensated by commission on products sold from these planning activities. . . . (2) A “Private Advisor” who maintains an office, and manages money on a fee-basis for only 25 clients; accepting new clients only if an existing client terminates the relationship, thereby creating a “vacancy”. . . . (3) An accounting firm that establishes a separate division to provide financial planning services to their clients and who charges separately for these planning services. . . . (4) A member of the clergy who provides financial planning and investment seminars for his parishioners free of charge. . . . (5) A retired stock broker who sells private non-registered church bonds to residents of his state, and who is compensated by a fee, equal to a percentage of the bonds sold. Select one:

a. (2) and (3) only

b. (1), (2) and (5)

c. (1), (3) and (5)

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

29. Matthew Connifer’s firm (Connifer Wealth Management) is registered with the SEC as an investment adviser. His brother, Peter Connifer, is also with the firm but sells only life and health insurance. Which of the following is permissible usage? . . . (1) Connifer Wealth Management, RIA . . . (2) Matthew Connifer, RIA . . . (3) Peter Connifer, Investment Counselor . . . (4) Matthew Connifer, Registered Investment Advisor Select one:

a. None of the offered responses would be permissible.

b. (3) and (4)

c. (3) only

d. (1), (2) and (4)

e. (1) only

30. Ted Peters operates a small financial services office in the state of Florida. His practice over the past ten years has been limited to the sale of term life and health insurance for which he is licensed with the State of Florida and receives commission. He has decided to broaden the scope of his practice to include investment and tax planning advice, but will limit the investment products he sells to fixed and variable annuities and variable life insurance. He plans to include the phrase “Tax and Investment Planning” on his business cards and anticipates charging a separate fee for his financial advice, although he does not anticipate directly managing any client assets. What new licensing/registration will be required for Ted? Select one:

a. Registration with both the State of Florida and SEC as an RIA because he will be holding himself out to the public as a financial advisor.

b. None, because he will only be selling life insurance products for which he is already licensed with the State of Florida.

c. Registration with the SEC as an RIA since he plans to charge fees for advice; licensing with FINRA due to the anticipated sale of variable annuities and variable life.

d. Licensing with the FINRA due to the sale of variable life and variable annuities. Since he does not plan to manage assets directly, no registration as an RIA is required.

e. Registration with the State of Florida because he plans to charge advisory fees and licensing with FINRA due to the sale of variable annuities and variable life.

31. If an RIA has more than ___________ of assets under management, the RIA must register with the SEC. Select one: a. C) $90 million b. E) The RIA must register with the SEC at any level of assets under management. c. A) $25 million d. D) $125 million e. B) $50

32. Which of the following statements concerning special types of bonds is (are) correct? . . . . (1) Serial bonds are issued at a specific time, but come due at different maturity dates. . . . . (2) Zero coupon bonds pay all interest in a lump sum at maturity. . . . . (3) There is no tax on zero coupon bonds until they mature. . . . . (4) Junk bonds pay above average yield because they have above average risk. Select one: a. (1), (2) and (4)

b. (1) and (2)

c. (2) and (3)

d. (2) and (4)

e. All of the above

33. All of the following statements concerning unsystematic risk are correct EXCEPT: Select one:

a. It may be affected by changes in consumer preferences and the competence of the firm’s management.

b. It is that portion of the total risk that is unique to the particular firm.

c. Such risk may be independent of factors affecting other industries.

d. It cannot be reduced by diversification.

33. Which of the following statements concerning terms relating to common stock is/are correct? . . . . (1) A beta of (-1) indicates that a stock has greater market volatility than a stock with a beta of 1. . . . . (2) Total book value of a company’s common stock is the value of total assets minus liabilities and minus the value of any preferred stock. . . . . (3) Earnings per share equal total after-tax earnings plus preferred dividends (if any) divided by the total number of shares of common and preferred stock outstanding. . . . . (4) Liquidation value for a company will usually be less than the market value of its common stock. . . . . (5) Preferred stock has a maturity date similar to a bond. Select one:

a. (2) and (4)

b. (1), (3) and (4)

c. All of the above

d. (1), (3) and (5)

e. (2), (3) and (4)

34. Your new client, Mr. Lindsey (age 30), has asked you to evaluate his life insurance needs. (He has none currently.) He feels that his family would need to replace his current income ($60,000 per year, to be funded at the beginning of each year) until his youngest child completes college (15 years from now). If he assumes an inflation rate of 4.5% and an after-tax yield of 10% (compounded annually), what amount of life insurance will you advise Mr. Lindsey that he will need to purchase to adequately cover his goal? Select one:

a. $950,000

b. $850,000

c. $750,000

d. $650,000

e. $550,000

35. Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of Universal Life? . . . . (1) The policy is backed by a portfolio of long-term investment vehicles with varying maturities. . . . . (2) The death benefit amount must remain level throughout the life of the policy. . . . . (3) The interest rate applied to the cash fund is not guaranteed and varies over the life of the policy. . . . . (4) Death benefit may be guaranteed in some contracts by paying premiums higher than target. . . . . (5) The Death benefit must always exceed the cash value by a stipulated amount, or the policy will cease to meet the definition of a life insurance policy. Select one:

a. (2) and (5)

b. All of the above

c. (3), (4) and (5)

d. (1), (2), (3) and (5)

e. (1) and (3)

36. The renewal provisions of various types of health insurance policies may be structured as any of the following: . . . . (1) Renewable at the option of the insurer. . . . . (2) Guaranteed renewable. . . . . (3) Conditionally renewable (with proof of continued good health at each renewal). . . . . (4) Specific and guaranteed increases annually, based on CPI. . . . . (5) Noncancellable. Select one:

a. (3), (4), and (5)

b. (1), (2) and (3)

c. All of the above

d. (1), (2) and (5) e. (2), (4) and (5)

37. The following are characteristics of a qualified retirement plan: . . . . (1) Employers can deduct the contributions . . . . (2) Employees do not pay taxes on the employer contributions until funds are withdrawn . . . . (3) Employee contributions may or may not reduce taxable income in the year made . . . . (4) Earnings on both employee and employer contributions are tax deferred. Select one:

a. All of the above

b. (1), (3) and (4)

c. (1), (2) and (4)

d. (1), (2) and (3)

38. The following are TRUE statements relating to planners’ concerns regarding retirement planning: . . . . (1) Most retirement planning clients expect to lower their lifestyle in retirement. . . . . (2) The top source of retirement income in America is income from the retiree’s employer-sponsored retirement plan. . . . . (3) Retirement goal analysis must include the following considerations: time horizon, retirement cash flow needs, and assets committed to the goal. . . . . (4) Withdrawal of funds from most tax-qualified retirement plans must begin no later than April 1 of the year the retiree turns 70. . . . . (5) Penalty free withdrawals may be made from some retirement accounts for special uses such as first time home purchases and qualifying educational expenses. Select one:

a. (2), (4) and (5)

b. (3) and (5) only

c. (2) and (3) only

d. (1), (2) and (3)

39. Social Security Retirement benefits received in 2016 by a 67 year old may be reduced if: . . . . (1) Wages and salaries exceed certain limits . . . . (2) Interest income exceed certain limits . . . . (3) Assets exceed $60,000 . . . . (4) A younger spouse’s income exceeds certain limits Select one:

a. (1), (3) and (4)

b. (1) and (2)

c. None of the above

d. All of the above

e. (1) only

40. Which of the following is/are among the advantages of a revocable living trust? . . . . (1) Future growth of the asset placed in trust is excluded from the grantor’s estate . . . . (2) Federal estate tax savings because property is removed from the grantor’s gross estate . . . . (3) Avoidance of the cost and publicity associated with probate for assets placed in the trust . . . . (4) Savings in income taxes for the grantor, regardless of tax bracket . . . . (5) The grantor can retain control over the assets Select one: a. (1), (2) and (3) b. (4) and (5) c. (2), (3) and (4) d. All of the above e. (3) and (5) Which of the following is/are among the advantages of an irrevocable living trust? . . . . (1) Savings in income taxes for a grantor, regardless of tax bracket . . . . (2) Federal estate tax savings because property is removed from the grantor’s gross estate . . . . (3) Avoidance of the cost and publicity associated with probate . . . . (4) The grantor can retain control over the assets . . . . (5) Future growth of the asset placed in trust is excluded from the grantor’s estate Select one:

a. (2), (3) and (4)

b. (2), (3) and (5)

c. (1), (2) and (3)

d. (3), (4) and (5)

e. All of the above